Hi all,

This is a very interesting discussion. The slaves as real property issue is a thorny one. Could slaves still be entailed somehow after this? Are there any examples of a white family moving to a new (but previously existing) large plantation and buying the slaves owned by the previous family?

Can anyone tell me what the most accurate source is for more information on this?

Thanks!

Ami

Ami Pflugrad-Jackisch
Associate Professor of History
University of Toledo
[log in to unmask]<mailto:[log in to unmask]>


Craig Kilby <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

This may well be. One such instance was Virginia’s 1748 repeal of the 1705 law defining slaves as real property, which was nullified in 1751.

Craig Kilby
Kilby Research Services
www.craigkilby.com<http://www.craigkilby.com>






> On Jan 5, 2016, at 10:40 AM, Tarter, Brent (LVA) <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
> If memory serves me correctly, the Crown disallowed several statutes enacted with the revisal of Virginia's legal code in 1749.


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