I stand connected on the "first,etc..", but since Article 2, Section 1 
states:
"The Congress may determine the Time of chusing the Electors, and the Day on 
which they shall give their Votes; which Day shall be the same throughout 
the United States"

How did the congress avoid setting a date until 1845?

Harris Kern
----- Original Message ----- 
From: "macbd1" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2007 3:59 PM
Subject: Re: Voting day


> Our founders did not establish this 'first Tuesday after first Monday' 
> voting practice; a uniform date for chosing presidential Electors was 
> first instituted by the U.S. Congress in 1845 although there are still 
> exceptions amongst the states.  Any search engine (I prefer Google) will 
> reveal 'many' sources that explain and discuss the whys and wherefores. 
> Simply enter the quoted phrase as the search term.  More details may be 
> learned from a Google *book* search using the same search term.
> Hope this helps.
> Neil McDonald
>
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Harris Kern" <[log in to unmask]>
> To: <[log in to unmask]>
> Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2007 12:53 PM
> Subject: [VA-HIST] Voting day
>
>
> Do any of the founder's papers speak of why "the first Tuesday after the 
> first Monday". Seems rather complicated, but there must have been a reason 
> to make it so. I'm sure we can think up all kinds of reason that could 
> have been in play at the time, but did any of the participants write down 
> what actual reasoning went into the formalization of "the first Tuesday 
> after the first Monday"?
>
> Harris Kern
>