I stand connected on the "first,etc..", but since Article 2, Section 1 states: "The Congress may determine the Time of chusing the Electors, and the Day on which they shall give their Votes; which Day shall be the same throughout the United States" How did the congress avoid setting a date until 1845? Harris Kern ----- Original Message ----- From: "macbd1" <[log in to unmask]> To: <[log in to unmask]> Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2007 3:59 PM Subject: Re: Voting day > Our founders did not establish this 'first Tuesday after first Monday' > voting practice; a uniform date for chosing presidential Electors was > first instituted by the U.S. Congress in 1845 although there are still > exceptions amongst the states. Any search engine (I prefer Google) will > reveal 'many' sources that explain and discuss the whys and wherefores. > Simply enter the quoted phrase as the search term. More details may be > learned from a Google *book* search using the same search term. > Hope this helps. > Neil McDonald > > ----- Original Message ----- > From: "Harris Kern" <[log in to unmask]> > To: <[log in to unmask]> > Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2007 12:53 PM > Subject: [VA-HIST] Voting day > > > Do any of the founder's papers speak of why "the first Tuesday after the > first Monday". Seems rather complicated, but there must have been a reason > to make it so. I'm sure we can think up all kinds of reason that could > have been in play at the time, but did any of the participants write down > what actual reasoning went into the formalization of "the first Tuesday > after the first Monday"? > > Harris Kern >