I have also wondered why historians writing about slaves or free Negroes
in the early American period now refer to them as "African-Amercans."
They were not "Americans," at least in a legal or constitutional sense.
In a historical and legal sense, they were "Negroes" or "blacks" or
"mulattoes." There is obviously a cultural sensitivity to pejorative
terms for different nationalities, but is that the reason? Even if it
is, can the historian continue to use the terms that were current during
the period about which she is writing? Is there now a rule that this
issue can't be discussed? To which group was Holder referring, those who
are willing to discuss it, or those who will not?

Richard E. Dixon

Editor, Jefferson Notes

Thomas Jefferson Heritage Society

 
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