I have also wondered why historians writing about slaves or free Negroes in the early American period now refer to them as "African-Amercans." They were not "Americans," at least in a legal or constitutional sense. In a historical and legal sense, they were "Negroes" or "blacks" or "mulattoes." There is obviously a cultural sensitivity to pejorative terms for different nationalities, but is that the reason? Even if it is, can the historian continue to use the terms that were current during the period about which she is writing? Is there now a rule that this issue can't be discussed? To which group was Holder referring, those who are willing to discuss it, or those who will not? Richard E. Dixon Editor, Jefferson Notes Thomas Jefferson Heritage Society <blocked::http://www.lva.virginia.gov/> ______________________________________ To subscribe, change options, or unsubscribe please see the instructions at http://listlva.lib.va.us/archives/va-hist.html