Paul Drake wrote: > So, until shown otherwise, it remains my belief that if I die testate and leave any of my assets to "my surviving children", and if I have previously formally recognized a illegitimate child as my own, or some court has established my paternity, that child will be included within that category stated in my will - "my surviving children". Perhaps I misunderstood the question. I thought that we were talking about the law and customs in the 1700's and not the law and customs of today. Certainly in most jurisdictions today that would probably be the case. However, it wasn't the case then. Then the phrase would have been interpreted to mean "legally begotten" children which was accomplished in only one of two ways: by birth within marriage or by legal adoption. The following source is very general but it might be helpful. http://www.constitution.org/bouv/bouvier_b.htm Paul, can you illustrate a case in which an illegimate child was granted legal standing as an heir in an intestate estate probate? Renee L. Dauven To subscribe, change options, or unsubscribe please see the instructions at http://listlva.lib.va.us/archives/va-roots.html