It is my understanding that it was "technically illegal" for someone to obtain 
the standard 50 acres of land in the 1600s for "transporting" a person who had 
ALREADY been "transported" by someone previously (i.e., a 
single "transportee" could not "generate" more than 50 acres).  Is that correct 
(or was it only illegal if the SAME land owner obtained a second 50 acres for 
HIMSELF for the "transportation" of the same person)?

Note: I understand that such "double (or more) transportations" happened 
with some regularity, and that it was very difficult for the government to 
prevent such "fraud."

I have a case where a Francis Brown was transported twice into/within the 
same county in VA by two different men about a month apart in 1650 (this 
was in the area that eventually became Middlesex Co., VA in the 1670s).  To 
make this situation particularly interesting, some researchers believe that this 
was the SAME Francis Brown who had obtained 500 acres for himself a year 
earlier (for transporting 10 persons).

Based on the above, is it likely that we are dealing with two (at least) Francis 
Browns, or should I not be so sceptical that this was possibly the same man in 
all three cases?  I can accept the "double transporting" of a single man, but it 
seems strange to me that a person who obtained and owned 500 acres in 
1649 would then be "transported" himself a year later (and as I recall, a 
person had three years to "make it or break it" as far as making the land 
profitable was concerned).  Comments?  Thanks!

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