Has anyone seen a case where a "currently married woman" signed a 
document using her maiden name?  There is a "disagreement" over 
whether or not a particular woman (Diana Skipwith) could have been the 
mother of all of the children of her husband (Edward Dale), since she 
signed one document with her maiden name, sometime AFTER the date 
of the birth of his oldest child.  Some argue that this was not unheard 
of, especially in cases where the woman had a "royal heritage" (which 
was supposedly the case here).  Others argue that the oldest child 
must have been via another/earlier wife.  Comments?

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