I have two quick questions:

1.  Is anyone familiar with what a widow's dower would have been if she
REMARRIED (c. 1717)?  Her husband's will did not address her remarriage and
only 3 of their children were named.  However, one of her children sued for
his portion of his father's estate when he reached majority and was awarded
a 1/8 portion.  I can't reconcile the traditional 1/3 and the 1/8 unless her
remarriage negated the dower or unless she voluntarily gave it up.  I would
love some insight and guidance.

2.  I'm aware that familial terms were applied entirely differently in the
1700s than they are today.  I've been studying a 1781 document where the
term godfather appears . . . . although it may be grdfather.  Regardless of
which it is, I am convinced that the individual had to have been the
grandfather . . . . well actually the step-grandfather.  Does anyone know
whether or not these terms were interchangeable???

Hope some knowledgeable individual/s gave give me sorely needed help.

With much thanks,

Jan

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