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Discussion of research and writing about Virginia history <[log in to unmask]>
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Mon, 18 Feb 2008 15:32:25 -0500
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I think all the gyrations to separate the legal usage of slavery days 
not only implies our readers are idiots, and can't tell the difference, 
it sets a nasty precedent.  What shall we call Nazi Germany? . .. the 
Kmer Rouge?  Surely if we refer to the Nazi party our readers will 
think ill of us, as such a horrible organization can't possibly be 
considered a legitimate political party.

Furthermore, banning words like niggardly shows an apalling ignorance 
of the English language and is just inexcusable.

Another thing - banning books (like Huckleberry Finn) because the N 
word is printed in it, and high school students will, therefore,  think 
it's ok to use that word, is ridiculous.  If that were true, it would 
be necessary to ban Shakespeare as well, as there are references to 
unseemly behavior in his works as well.

I think people are smarter than they are getting credit for.  It's not 
necessary to inform them that the slave owner of pre-civil war days 
would not be considered a legitimate owner in 2008.

Elizabeth

-----Original Message-----
From: S. Corneliussen <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: Mon, 18 Feb 2008 9:32 am
Subject: Re: Slave owner or slave "owner"?

Henry Wiencek had written:
> ...realize that a slave was not a slave by nature, but was actively
> compelled
> into enslavement by owners and the legal system.

J South replied:
> Africans were compelled into enslavement, by their African brothers 
who
> made
> slaves out of them and sold them for shipment to the New World.  The
> purchasers/owners perpetuated the status under which they purchased 
the
> slaves.

My question:
Does your original enslavement by your countrymen, before your sale to
people from other lands, somehow make you a slave by nature?

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