In a message dated 2/19/08 8:37:32 PM, [log in to unmask] writes:


> 
> But so what?  How does this fact in any way reduce the moral culpability of 
> those English or American persons who purchased slaves?
> 
> Slavery is repugnant not just by any arbitrary set of ethical standards, but 
> rather when judged by the standards of English and American political and 
> constitutional values, to which I would hope everyone in this conversation is 
> committed.  The fact that people in Africa, who lived by other standards, 
> committed (what are in my view) morally reprehensible actions in no way or 
> fashion lets my ancestors off the hook.  *My* ancestors violated their *own* 
> standards.  So did everyone who owned slaves who was also a citizen of the United 
> States of America.
> 
> 

Dear Kevin:

There is a danger in condemning the moral culpability of ALL purchasers of 
slaves in the Americas. What about those family members who purchased their 
relatives to protect thm and used the system to their advantage?   What about 
those white "owners"  who purchased   Africans off the dock, immediately freed 
them and took them to safer places, to clothe, feed, educate and make them 
productive free members of society?   I met a man at the National Geneaological 
Society conference whose Vt. ancestor had done just that.   I am always   reminded 
about what one of my medical professors told me there are no absolutes in 
Medicine;   never say always, never say never, it keeps you out of trouble ;-)!   
Excellent discussion!

Anita


Anita L. Henderson


**************
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