Dear Listers:

My ancestor sold some property - but because his wife could not travel
to the courthouse men were sent to "examine" her to see if she willingly
and freely, without threats or persuasions, from her husband agreed to
having the sale of the land recorded.

Did she have any rights of refusal during the time period?  This land
was possibly given to her when she married my ancestor. Does that make a
difference?

Thanks for any ideas.

Diana Kercheval Bennett

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