I want to ask our many experts on a technical question from the 1670s. This took place in Accomack County.

John Stockley wrote his will in 1671 in which he states all of his sons are under age 18 (when in fact at least one was not), and then names three daughters who are to obtain their share of chattel when they become "of marriageable age."  He also names a fourth daughter whose legacy had "already been designed." [I take to that to mean she was already married, but this is not clear.]

The first named of the three daughters went to court in April 1675 to have her legacy of the chattel given to her. 

The question, would she have to have been 21 years old when she did this? She was not yet married when she did this. A commission was appointed to set her share aside for her.

Just what, if anything, did "marriagable age" mean? I would have assumed it meant "when they married" but that she went to court for it is a new one for me.

Craig
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