A better question might be what determined why a servant or slave was NOT on an inventory. I have seen cases where if the slave (or servant) was bequeathed in the will, s/he isn’t listed on the inventory, and then again all slaves, bequeathed or not, listed in an inventory.

I am currently struggling with what seems to be a flagrant ignoring of the law in Lancaster County. From 1705 to 1776, slaves were considered to be real property and subject to laws of primogeniture and entail, yet I am finding a number of intestate estates dividing up the slaves anyway, among widows, sons and daughters. This in the 1760s. I can’t yet determine WHY this is being done in these estates.

Craig Kilby

> On Nov 20, 2015, at 10:50 AM, Paul Heinegg <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> 
> What determined whether a slave or servant would be listed in an inventory for a man who died testate in Virginia in 1740?
> Paul Heinegg

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