I have seen some where the wife's father did not for whatever reason want
the son in law to own the property.--some due to dislike of son in law. I
have also seen where the daughter (s) were always left the home w/ smaller
land amounts so the woman would always have a place to live. I have seen
where several unmarried daughters lived in the home.
On Thu, Mar 26, 2020 at 12:35 PM Ralph E Mann <[log in to unmask]>
wrote:
> It also protected the property from the husband's liabilities--business
> failures, etc. It was often a tactical move in a mercurial economy.
>
> Ralph Mann
>
> ________________________________
> From: Discussion of research and writing about Virginia history <
> [log in to unmask]> on behalf of Ron Roizen <[log in to unmask]
> >
> Sent: Thursday, March 26, 2020 10:12 AM
> To: [log in to unmask] <[log in to unmask]>
> Subject: Re: Land titles
>
> Hi! I've seen this too, in property documents way back when in my little
> town of Wallace, Idaho. One thought is that it may have insured and
> hastened the transfer of property to the wife upon the husband's death.
> Ron Roizen
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Discussion of research and writing about Virginia history <
> [log in to unmask]> On Behalf Of Leland Ness
> Sent: Thursday, March 26, 2020 8:44 AM
> To: [log in to unmask]
> Subject: [VA-HIST] Land titles
>
> Hi there,
>
> I have several questions that have arisen in the last several decades of
> my local history quest, but I figure I will start with the easiest. It is
> probably one that many subscribers will know off the top of their heads.
>
> In researching land titles at the local courthouses for the period
> 1890-1920 I often find that ownership is listed solely in the name of the
> wife of a married couple.
>
> I guess this could be interpreted as evidence of an early "woke" and
> progressive Virginia, but I suspect the reason is more prosaic. Real
> estate taxes were levied regardless of who technically owned the property,
> but perhaps there were benefits in the event of bankruptcy? Or perhaps
> intestate death? Did they not have joint tenancy with rights of
> survivorship?
>
> Any thoughts on why a married couple would put their house in the name of
> the wife only in that period?
>
> Many thanks
>
> Leland Ness
>
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