So sis the Spanish did have slaves in St. Augustine, Florida in 1500s?
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> On May 7, 2019, at 10:36 PM, Paul Finkelman <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
> Gregg
> The answer is really quite simple. England had no laws allowing slavery or creating; there are not been any slaves in England since Roman times (although there were people in various forms of bondage and serfs unto the 1200s or 1300s. But by the 17th century England had no slavery; so her colonies did not either. The "20 and odd" blacks who arrived were servants because that was the only status they fit.
> There are doubtless some blacks held as slaves in VA in the 1730s or 1740s, but in another post I just sent to the moderator, I note that the first formal creation of slavery in VA was in 1660.
> You ask about the English colonies, but in 1619 there is only ONE! VA. Plymouth starts in 1620 and Mass. Bay in 1630. No other British colonies in the New World.
> And, as Lord Mansfield will note in 1772, there was never any common law creating slavery in Britain and slavery could only be created by positive law (statutes). See Somerset v. Stewart (1772).
> ********
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> On Tuesday, May 7, 2019 09:23:47 AM EDT, Kimball, Gregg <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
> There are a few premises in the initial post that I would consider suspect,
> but I'm sure better scholars on the list will weigh in. I hope they will,
> because a few of these assumptions have troubled me for some time.
>
> How can we consider the "20 and odd" Africans who arrived in Virginia in
> 1619 as "indentured servants with time restricted contracts" if they were
> taken from a Spanish slave ship by English raiders and traded in the
> colony?
>
> Do we know that there were "no laws regarding slavery for life" anywhere in
> Britain and its colonies? I ask that because we seem to assume that a lack
> of statutes means "no law," but British law, as I understand it, was
> largely based on the common law.
>
> Can we EVER assume a "first" in terms of the law of slavery in Virginia
> given the massive loss of early records?
>
> Gregg
>
>
>
>> On Tue, May 7, 2019 at 7:58 AM Boris Sokolovsky <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>
>> Since there were no laws regarding slavery for life(all "slaves" were
>> brought in as indentured servants with time restricted contracts) what was
>> the first established by law case of slavery?
>> Many resources point at the Johnson vs Parker case.
>> Can you clarify the issue?
>>
>>> On Mon, May 6, 2019 at 1:11 PM Paul Heinegg <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>>>
>>> No, but he may have been the first slave owned by a former slave.
>>>
>>> Casor sued for his freedom from former slave Anthony Johnson in
>>> Northampton
>>> County, Virginia, in 1653, but Johnson insisted that "hee had ye Negro
>> for
>>> his life" [Orders, Deeds, Wills, 1651-54, 226].
>>> John Casor/ Cazara travelled with the Johnson family to Somerset County,
>>> Maryland, where he recorded his livestock mark in court, with the consent
>>> of
>>> Anthony's widow Mary Johnson [Archives of Maryland, 54:760-1].
>>> He was a witness (signing) to her power of attorney by which she assigned
>>> her son John Johnson authority over her property in Virginia [Somerset
>>> County Judicial Record, 1671-75, 159-62].
>>> Paul
>>>
>>> -----Original Message-----
>>> From: Boris Sokolovsky
>>> Sent: Saturday, May 04, 2019 3:14 PM
>>> To: [log in to unmask]
>>> Subject: [VA-HIST] John Casor
>>>
>>> Was John Casor one of the first legal black slave?
>>>
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>
>
> --
> Dr. Gregg D. Kimball
> Director of Public Services and Outreach
> Library of Virginia
> 804-692-3722 (work)
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